From this article:
Neuropsychopharmacology - Baclofen as a Cocaine Anti-Craving Medication: A Preliminary Clinical Study
I?m confused by the term ?behavioral sensitization.? I looked at about 5 different definitions/explanations for this term. It doesn't seem to make much sense to anyone, and there doesn't seem to be a standard, accepted definition. Am I missing something?
Behavioral sensitization means that the reward escalates with use. Despite the fact that we know and other science shows, and part of the definition of abuse is that there is less reward which leads to an escalation of use. Which is one of the reasons that abuse develops.
Also, in this paragraph it says that baclofen "abolishes the motor-stimulant actions". But later in the article it says, "Of the four patients who were asked, none experienced any subjective differences in their cocaine ?highs? while taking baclofen."
Next is this paragraph:
"Baclofen reduces the reinforcing effects of cocaine in rats." What does that mean?
And it positively alters mood, feelings and/or attitudes that occur during abstinence? That would allow for greater engagement in...support group type treatment?
I can take that in a lot of directions. For instance, is it a mood elevator? It reduces bad feelings during abstinence? Is it simply that they are likely referring to an absence of craving and the abstinent cocaine-user feels better?
Neuropsychopharmacology - Baclofen as a Cocaine Anti-Craving Medication: A Preliminary Clinical Study
Preclinical studies have shown that baclofen, through inhibition of somatodendritic dopamine release, prevents development of cocaine-induced behavioral sensitization and abolishes the motor-stimulant actions of cocaine (Kalivas and Steward 1991).
I?m confused by the term ?behavioral sensitization.? I looked at about 5 different definitions/explanations for this term. It doesn't seem to make much sense to anyone, and there doesn't seem to be a standard, accepted definition. Am I missing something?
Behavioral sensitization means that the reward escalates with use. Despite the fact that we know and other science shows, and part of the definition of abuse is that there is less reward which leads to an escalation of use. Which is one of the reasons that abuse develops.
Also, in this paragraph it says that baclofen "abolishes the motor-stimulant actions". But later in the article it says, "Of the four patients who were asked, none experienced any subjective differences in their cocaine ?highs? while taking baclofen."
Next is this paragraph:
Baclofen was recently shown to attenuate [reduce the force/effect/value of] the reinforcing effects of cocaine in rats (Roberts et al. 1996). Other studies suggest that baclofen may be a fast acting treatment for the affective [related to moods, feelings and attitudes] state that occurs during cocaine abstinence (Andrews and File 1993a,b; Krupitsky et al. 1993) and, hence, may promote greater engagement in psychosocial treatment.
"Baclofen reduces the reinforcing effects of cocaine in rats." What does that mean?
And it positively alters mood, feelings and/or attitudes that occur during abstinence? That would allow for greater engagement in...support group type treatment?
I can take that in a lot of directions. For instance, is it a mood elevator? It reduces bad feelings during abstinence? Is it simply that they are likely referring to an absence of craving and the abstinent cocaine-user feels better?
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